Are You Eating and Drinking Christ? (Part 2)

Reason #7: Jesus is clear that eating His flesh and drinking His blood results in something “spiritual”, namely “eternal life” (6:54, 57). If the result is “spiritual”, then the cause (eating and drinking) must be “spiritual” as well (i.e. faith). In other words, it is not physical eating and drinking in view, but appropriation of Christ through personal faith (which is a spiritual act) in Him. This fits with the rest of Scripture, which affirms that eternal life only comes by faith.

Reason #8: It is likely that if Jesus were speaking about the Lord’s Supper that He would use the Greek word soma (translated “body”). Every passage in Scripture referring to the Lord’s Supper uses this word to speak of the body of Christ as represented in the bread (Matt. 26:26; Mk. 14:22; Lk. 22:19; I Cor. 10:16; 11:24, 27). Instead, Jesus uses the Greek word sarx (translated “flesh”).

Reason #9: At first, Christ simply speaks of “eating” His flesh (6:51). Later he refers to “eating His flesh and drinking His blood” (6:53-55). Finally, he refers only to “eating His flesh” (6:57). Again, this seems to prove Christ is speaking metaphorically. One must assume that if He was speaking about the Lord’s Supper that He would always include the act of “drinking” with the that of “eating”. He does not do that. As shown above (verse 57), Christ simply speaks of “eating” to the exclusion of “drinking”. If He were speaking about the Lord’s Supper, then it would appear Christ is diminishing in some sense the “drinking” aspect. Thus, the eating and drinking are not referring to the Lord’s Supper. Rather to “eat His flesh and drink His blood” is the same thing as believing (vss. 35, 47); coming (vs. 35), listening (vs. 45), and learning (vs. 45). Coming to Christ in faith seems to be more logically consistent.

Reason #10: Jesus is addressing largely unbelievers (“the Jews”…In John’s Gospel this title always refers negatively to the Jewish religious leaders who reject Christ.), not believers. It is true, that many were lukewarm disciples, but we see at the end of the chapter that they were not true believers because they deserted Jesus. Therefore, it would not make sense to command observance of Lord’s Supper (when Christ has not yet died anyway) to an audience largely composed of unbelieving, sinful rejecters of Christ.


Reason #11: Jesus says that eternal life is granted to those who eat and drink Christ. Christ unequivocally says there is “no life” (6:53) in those who do not. If this were as some suggest a reference to the Lord’s Supper, then it would logically result in a belief in works salvation. In other words, if one asserts the Lord’s Supper is in view in Christ words, then he must also assert that the act of observing the Lord’s Supper grants eternal life. This is contrary to grace and promotes works oriented salvation. Ironically enough, that is what the religious leaders, influenced by the Pharisees, held to. Jesus certainly did not promote their erroneous teaching! In fact, He rebuked them in 6:29, declaring that one does not work for salvation. Rather, one simply believes.

Reason #12: The eating and drinking in John 6 is reference to salvation. Whereas, the eating and drinking that is seen in Lord’s Supper is for those who have already been saved looking back with thanksgiving.

Reason #13: (This last one is for all the Greek snobs.) The verbs “eat” and “drink” (ex. 6:50, 53) are in the Aorist tense (original Greek) emphasizing the once for all action of receiving Christ. Observance of the Lord’s Supper is an ongoing recognized ordinance of the church. Thus, it cannot be in view based on the basic grammar of the text itself.